Kinda weird. Intel was fined for the same practice in US. And the general court cited the insufficient economic analysis that led them to vacate the initial EU ruling. How badly did the EU court make this analysis for the court to dismiss the judgement? Even considering this was successfully litigated in other courts.
I'm assuming that you are full of undeniable proofs about that claim, right? I mean, you either believe in the justice system or you don't, but if you don't you also shouldn't trust it with the lawsuit against Intel to begin with.
After escaping a fine of over $1.1 billion, Intel is now free of all the legal trouble connected to the nearly two-decade-long fight with EU regulators, thanks to a decision of the EU Court of Justice. The tech giant had been accused of trying to block AMD by awarding rebates to Lenovo, Dell, HP, and NEC.
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